...I'm pretty sure you just did all the math...completely wrong, because there is no possibly way that you could make it so that a=b can become 2=1...unless I'm wrong here. Someone else good at math care to look this over @_@
Edit: Is the flaw in when you subtracted b^2? Cuz I have no idea why you did that or where b^2 even came from.
Necros wrote:Is the flaw in when you subtracted b^2? Cuz I have no idea why you did that or where b^2 even came from.No thats not the flaw... as long as you do it to both sides of the equation it is valid. Good guess though.
Its actually really simple. People like me just make it look hard.
Divide by (a-b)
is divide by zero
like saying n = m when they are different bc n^0=m^0 or n*0=m*0
is divide by zero
like saying n = m when they are different bc n^0=m^0 or n*0=m*0
You don't even have to divide. If you plug in a and b, you get:
(1-1)(1+1)=1(1-1)
(0)(2)=1(0)
0=0
So you did the third to last step wrong.
(1-1)(1+1)=1(1-1)
(0)(2)=1(0)
0=0
So you did the third to last step wrong.
woot, I passed a grade 9 algebra puzzle; i'm glad my degree in science wasn't wasted [/smugmode off]
the answer is that there is no solution for 3 reasons:
the reason stated above by multiple people
if a and b were both known to equal 1, they would be represented by the same variable.
the domain of such an equation would require that if a=1, b can be any real number that does not equal 1.
the reason stated above by multiple people
if a and b were both known to equal 1, they would be represented by the same variable.
the domain of such an equation would require that if a=1, b can be any real number that does not equal 1.
